Suppose that the difference in offers is $$\$ 1$$ million and the player believes that his probability of winning is 0.90 . The player's arbitration costs are $$\$ 100,000$$. Management believes that the player's probability of winning is only 0.60 . Management's arbitration costs are also $$\$ 100,000$$.
a. Assuming no settlement costs, will there be a settlement in this case?
b. If $R_p=R_M=\$ 30,000$, would there be a settlement?